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Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman It is the female form of milord And here's some background on milord The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's shoes. as for your second question, i'm assuming you're referring to a group of women in your salutation of them, so it would be good morning, ladies. and as you're addressing them directly, the comma preceding ladies is necessary.
If you are wondering why we don't write ladies's, it is because ladies is one of the exceptions, along with girls', parents', players', weeks' and even klingons' it can get a bit niggly with names too Aristophanes' plays, but jesus's miracles and (usually) james. Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is the term you want But in my opinion, if you're talking about clients of yours, be gender neutral
That lady wouldn't stop talking about. I tried searching google ngram viewer for look lady and listen lady, both capitalized so as to occur at the start of a sentence, with the hope that these ngrams would reflect the usage of lady in a derogatory/dismissive sense It seems to have come into usage around 1950, and really took off in the late 1990s. I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now
Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman', and the opposite of 'gentleman' is, namely, 'gentlewoman'. This seems rather a poor act of classification,. Even when lady macbeth says And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't understand how we get from milk to blood (too much of the blood humor supposedly being the problem).
Did it originally appeared in english countries, or And is this always expressed in a positive/polite tune of meaning Daughter of the duke of marlborough.husband's an utter rascal Is the usage of handsome here archaic, or just rarely used by those in the know
If the former, when did it become so?
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