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The new testament shows an interesting and (somewhat) unexpected pattern in the use of the greek phrase, “ego eimi”, “i am” The exact phrase “ego eimi” occurs 48 times in the new testament It also occurs 11 times as “eimi ego” which has a very similar but still different construction and all are relational or predicative. What is the oldest record of the interpretation that the "I am" ego eimi in John 8:58 claim is Yahweh claim of Exodus 3:14? Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ.
Jesus did not say ego eimi ho on in john 8:58 As what is shown on the lxx The appearance of ho on revelation 1:4;8, 4:8, 11:17and 16:5 are all applied to god and not to jesus Exodus 3:14 should be read from the context of the whole passage.
Yet, a minority position is to translate 8:58b as 'i am he' This is the view taken by sozzini as. The absolute use of the greek egō eimi (without complement or predicate) is (in the words of c.k Barrett) hardly a greek expression, .ἐγώ εἰμι is in itself (as greek) a meaningless expression.
When jesus says the iconic ego eimi (i am he) phrase, it is clearly done in response to being asked if he is the messiah or christ, not if he is god In john 4:26, jesus responded i am he in response to being asked if he was the messiah, the son of god. However, εἰμί (eimi) is capable of much more I note that both thayer and bdag list numerous uses for this versatile verb, the first of which is invariably meaning to exist
The distinguishing characteristic of stative verbs is their use to show the status of something.
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